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IFR (Instrument Rating) Airman Knowledge Test Questions 2007
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?
A) 2 NM.
B) 3 NM.
C) 5 NM.
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
A) The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
B) The moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank.
C) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
B) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
A) 090 radial.
B) 180 radial.
C) 360 radial.
Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
A) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
B) Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.
C) Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.
(Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?
A) Long range communications outlet for Great Falls Center.
B) Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.
C) Satellite remote controlled by Salt Lake Center with limited service.
(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?
A) 8,300 feet.
B) 11,100 feet.
C) 13,000 feet.
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?
A) The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.
B) The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
C) The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.
What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate?
A) A procedure turn is not authorized.
B) Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.
C) Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.
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