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IFR (Instrument Rating) Airman Knowledge Test Questions 2007
411.
(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow A on the Radar Summary Chart?
A) Moderate to strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; line movement toward the northwest.
B) Weak to moderate echoes; average echo bases 30,000 feet MSL; cell movement toward the southeast; rain showers with thunder.
C) Strong to very strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; thunderstorms and rain showers.
412.
For most effective use of the Radar Summary Chart during preflight planning, a pilot should
A) consult the chart to determine more accurate measurements of freezing levels, cloud cover, and wind conditions between reporting stations.
B) compare it with the charts, reports, and forecasts of a three-dimensional picture of clouds and precipitation.
C) utilize the chart as the only source of information regarding storms and hazardous conditions existing between reporting stations.
413.
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
A) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
B) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
C) Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.
414.
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?
A) Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.
B) Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.
C) Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
415.
What force causes an airplane to turn?
A) Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
B) Vertical lift component.
C) Horizontal lift component.
416.
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are
A) flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.
B) airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.
C) relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
417.
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
A) decrease and true altitude will increase.
B) increase and true altitude will decrease.
C) increase and true altitude will increase.
418.
Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?
A) When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.
B) During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.
C) During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.
419.
When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?
A) Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°.
B) Drift corrections should be made in 5° increments after passing the outer marker.
C) Drift corrections should be made in 10° increments after passing the outer marker.
420.
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
A) If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.
B) At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
C) Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
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