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IFR (Instrument Rating) Airman Knowledge Test Questions 2007
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
A) in lieu of the OM.
B) in lieu of visibility requirements.
C) to determine distance from TDZ.
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
(Refer to figure 55.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?
A) 2° to 3°.
B) 5° maximum.
C) 10° to 20°.
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
A) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
B) Approach control services.
C) Airport Advisory Service.
(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
A) No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.
B) Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
C) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A) Two-way communications and Mode C transponder.
B) Two-way communications.
C) Transponder and DME.
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
A) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.
B) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
C) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2?
A) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.
B) 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
C) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A) A straight in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.
B) The pilot may land straight in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
C) A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
What is meant when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
A) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
B) Radar service is terminated.
C) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
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